randomep Posted March 16, 2015 Share Posted March 16, 2015 Hi all, I have always wondered about this but cannot find any source. But I think it has probably been discussed here. How does the law in the US prevent a majority shareholder from paying himself excessive compensation. I haven't seen the amount being too horrible for stocks that I own. But just wondered what are the formal legal protections. And what about outside the US. thanks in advance Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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