scorpioncapital Posted June 18, 2009 Share Posted June 18, 2009 Does anybody know why if I enter 10% discount rate vs. 50% discount rate, the IV of the B shares changes by about $1000/share? http://www.creativeacademics.com/finance/IV.html I can't believe that a 50% discount rate vs 5-10% makes a difference of only $1000 per B share. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
returnonmycapital Posted June 18, 2009 Share Posted June 18, 2009 I would imagine it is due to subsidiary earnings, which the discount rate applies to, being only a portion of the IV calculation. I suspect the equity investments are a major part of the calculation and are valued at 100%. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
returnonmycapital Posted June 18, 2009 Share Posted June 18, 2009 That strikes me as odd. In my IV calculation I would pay 100% for BRK's float (more likely over 100%) given that it has a negative cost. I would pay 100% for investments that are included in BRK's book value and I would only discount operating earnings of BRK's subs, perhaps for as long as 15 years. I think that is the way WEB would suggest we go about it ourselves, no? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
arbitragr Posted June 19, 2009 Share Posted June 19, 2009 I find it unusual that you would use a DCF or a variant of it (Gordon growth model) to value BRK. Never seen that before on a professional level. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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